Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2013 February 16

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February 16[edit]

Quadratic roots[edit]

Is is possible to have two equal complex roots of a quadratic equation, where a,b,c are real numbers is a quadratic equation? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.227.197.26 (talk) 13:06, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]

No - only complex conjugate, if they are complex. Using the standard form of the quadratic equation:
where as usual a, b, c are real numbers, think about the quadratic formula solution:
so for negative discriminant,
the roots are complex conjugate. M∧Ŝc2ħεИτlk 13:25, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]
Altenative method - if the roots are equal and both equal to k then
and so k is real since a and b are real. Gandalf61 (talk) 14:10, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]

The notations D(Λ) = "representation of the Lorentz group" and (m, n) = "finite dimensional irreducible representations" seem clear enough, however the notation (say) "D(1/2, 0)" (i.e. including the superscript) is confusing...

My burning questions are...
  • is D(2m) = (m, 0) for half-integer m, or equivalently D(m) = (m/2, 0) for integer m? Or...
  • is D(m) = (m, 0) for integer or half-integer m?

Just alternative notations/conventions?...

D(m) = (m/2, 0) ⊕ (0, m/2),
D(m) = (m/2, m/2),
D(m, n) = (m/2, n/2) ⊕ (n/2, m/2),
what does the last expression have for equivalent notation:
D(m, n) = D(?)D(?) ?
while...
  • The WP article takes m, n to be half-integers in (m, n), so does that translate to
"D(2m, 2n) = (m, n) ⊕ (n, m)" ?
and this has what notation:
"D(m, n) = D(?)D(?) ?
  • In all... is the statement
D(m, n) = (m/2, n/2) ⊕ (n/2, m/2) = "(2m  +  1)(2n  +  1)-dimensional irreducible representations of D(Λ)"
true?
  • Are any of the differing conventions, where to put the 1/2 factor, or just the choice of what is integer and half-integer, is "the" standard?

Thanks in advance for any and all replies. Best, M∧Ŝc2ħεИτlk 13:23, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]

Don't get lost in the notation. The finite dimensional real irreducible representations of the spin group of the Lorentz group all have one of the following forms (for n and m integers):
These are irreducible as real representations, which means you cannot decompose them further without breaking invariance under complex conjugation. However those of the first kind do decompose as a sum of two complex conjugate represnetations. The source you cite calls the first kind of representation and the second kind . The fact that these are irreducible implies that there is no decomposition of into a direct sum of two real representations D's. Sławomir Biały (talk) 14:40, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]
It might be added that the above exhaustive list applies to O+(1;3) which includes parity inversions (the orthochronous Lorentz group). In physics SO+(1;3) (the proper orthochronous Lorentz group) is often of interest because parity is not a symmetry in every theory (see e.g. weak interactions). For SO+(1;3) the irreducible representations are of the form
for n and m integers.YohanN7 (talk) 16:18, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]
Excellent explanations of the facts - if that's all there is to it (the notation and it's meaning), that's fine. Thanks (again)! M∧Ŝc2ħεИτlk 23:43, 16 February 2013 (UTC)[reply]