Talk:Wyandotte Constitution

Illusionary Conflict

The user Ndickinson1 keeps on adding a section on supposed conflict with 14th Amendment, believing the word "men" represents "male privilege".

First, "men" has been used throughout history to mean "A human regardless of sex or age; a person" (thefreedictionary) in English and this usage remains current as is easily confirmed by consulting any decent dictionary.

Second, even if you chose to interpret "men" to mean males, there is NO conflict.

The statement "All Greeks have a right to life" in NO way conflicts with "All humans have a right to life". Same with males instead of Greeks.

The section on the supposed conflict is based on an illusion caused by poor understanding of English usage and of rudimentary logic.

Shores of bohemia (talk) 02:53, 24 July 2013 (UTC)

I should add that Wikipedia is not the proper place for user OPINIONS -- Ndickinson1 should find some other platform to propagate his ideas, be they reasonable or, as in this particular case, simply mistaken. If, however, Ndickinson1 finds some scholarly article on the use of the words "men" and "person" in the U.S. and Kansas constitutions, and their implications, that could be mentioned.

Shores of bohemia (talk) 03:07, 24 July 2013 (UTC)

What are the user "Shores of bohemia"'s credentials for removing information from this page. I am not sure where he gets the idea that "man" covers both "men" and "women." The framers of the U.S. Constitution clearly believed this was not the case and changed the language from "rights of Man" in the Declaration of Independence to "rights of Person" in the U.S. Constitution. I am not sure why "shores of bohemia" thinks he can override their language, or hide information about the Kansas constitution from the public. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 50.152.40.114 (talk) 20:24, 26 July 2013 (UTC)

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